BC Practice Driving Test

Driving


The correct answer are in red italics.

1. A passing lane has just opened up on a long narrow stretch of highway. The truck is traveling very slowly. The driver of the truck should:

a. Stay in the left lane and allow the cars to pass on the right.
b. Go into the right lane and allow the cars to pass on the left.
c. Drive right down the broken white line to give the truck more space.
d. The truck driver can choose either lane; cars may pass the truck on either side.


2. What class of licence must you already hold to apply for a commercial driver's licence?

a. Class 7.
b. Class 5.
c. Class 10.
d. You do not need to hold a previous licence.


3. How do you downgrade from a commercial to a non-commercial licence?

a. Requalify for the lower licence class.
b. Allow the licence to lapse by not submitting your Driver’s Medical Examination Report form.
c. Apply for a downgrade at a driver licensing office.
d. Do nothing.


4. What age must you be to hold a commercial driver's licence?

a. 16
b. 18
c. 19
d. 18 years for Class 3, 19 years for classes 1, 2 and 4.


5. A "special vehicle" is:

a. A bus which seats more than 10 people.
b. A school bus which seats no more than 10 people.
c. A vehicle which seats no more than 10 people, and which provides public transportation for people with disabilities.
d. A car or truck you really like.


6. A "special activity bus":

a. Is operated for a school.
b. Does not run on a set schedule.
c. Is used for the purpose for which it was manufactured.
d. All of the above.


7. A Class 4 licence allows you to drive:

a. A taxi or limousine.
b. An ambulance or a bus with a maximum seating capacity of 25.
c. Any motor vehicle or combination of vehicles in Class 5.
d. All of the above.


8. If you want to tow a trailer that weighs more than 4600 kg, and neither the trailer nor your towing vehicle has air brakes, which of the following do you need?

a. A Class 1, 2 or 3 driver's licence.
b. A Class 4 driver's licence.
c. A Class 4 or 5 driver's licence with a heavy trailer (code 20) endorsement.
d. Both a. and c. are correct.


9. A person who has a Class 1 driver's licence may drive:

a. A taxi.
b. Any vehicle with three or more axles.
c. A motorcycle.
d. a. and b. are correct.


10. To get a commercial licence you must:

a. Have a driving record that shows fewer than four tickets that carry penalty points in the last two years.
b. Not owe any motor vehicle related fines to ICBC or the province of B.C.
c. Already hold a Class 5 or 6 driver's licence, or out-of-province equivalent.
d. All of the above.


11. Once you receive your commercial driver's licence, your driving record will:

a. Become a matter of public record.
b. Be checked periodically by the company that employs you as a commercial driver.
c. Be checked periodically by the provincial government.
d. Be checked periodically by ICBC.


12. To qualify for a commercial driver's licence you must:

a. Take a vision test.
b. Be in relatively good physical health.
c. Take a knowledge test, a road test and conduct a pre-trip inspection of your vehicle.
d. All of the above.


13. To ensure smooth braking in any size vehicle, you should:

a. Use good braking skills.
b. Maintain a safe following distance.
c. Travel at a speed that allows you to see a safe distance ahead.
d. All of the above.


14. To prevent your vehicle from jerking back after it is fully stopped, you should:

a. Always hit the brakes as hard as you can.
b. Just before your vehicle comes to a full stop, reduce the pressure you are putting on the brake pedal.
c. Pump the brakes.
d. All of the above.


15. A vehicle that is twice the weight of a car and that is traveling at twice the speed of that car requires:

a. 2 times the stopping power.
b. 4 times the stopping power.
c. 6 times the stopping power.
d. 8 times the stopping power.


16. Stopping on icy roads requires:

a. Heavy brake use.
b. Light pressure on the brakes.
c. Pumping the brakes.
d. Shifting into a lower gear.


17. Using light brake pressure on an icy road will:

a. Prevent the wheels from locking up.
b. Prevent the vehicle from skidding.
c. Help you keep control of the vehicle.
d. All of the above.


18. When brake fade occurs:

a. Your vehicle takes longer to stop.
b. Your brakes stop working because they are overheated.
c. Your vehicle may not stop at all.
d. All of the above.


19. When traveling down a steep hill, you should:

a. Downshift before starting down the hill.
b. Use a gear that is not higher than the gear you would use to go up that hill.
c. Use a retarder in addition to your main service brakes.
d. All of the above.


20. Revolutions per minute, or r.p.m., are:

a. The number of complete turns the crankshaft makes in one minute.
b. Measured by your tachometer.
c. An important factor in governing how fast you can go in a given gear.
d. All of the above.


21. Truck drivers should:

a. Avoid steep hills altogether.
b. Heed "Truck Advisory" speed limits when traveling down steep hills.
c. Pull over and check their brakes when required.
d. b. and c. are correct.


22. Braking too forcefully when driving a combination-unit vehicle may cause:

a. Your wheels to lock up.
b. Your brakes to fail entirely.
c. Your vehicle to jack-knife or skid.
d. a. and c. are correct.


23. The brakes, tires and suspension of a combination vehicle work best when:

a. The cargo unit is empty.
b. Roads are wet.
c. The vehicle is loaded.
d. The vehicle is traveling at a high rate of speed.


24. A jackknife occurs when:

a. The driver loses control of a combination vehicle.
b. The power unit and the vehicle it is towing form an angle of 90 degrees or less.
c. Roads are wet.
d. The driver of a combination vehicle separates the power unit from the trailer


25. Anti-lock braking systems (ABS) are:

a. Designed to allow you to drive faster.
b. Designed to help prevent wheel lock-up caused by over-braking on slippery road surfaces.
c. Designed to allow you to brake faster than conventional brakes.
d. Designed to make braking distance shorter.


26. When stopping in an emergency with ABS brakes you should:

a. Apply firm, continuous pressure to the brake pedal.
b. Pump the brakes.
c. Take your foot off the brakes if you hear brake noise.
d. Rely solely on the brakes to help you avoid obstacles.


27. An engine brake retarder is:

a. More efficient at a higher engine r.p.m. and a lower vehicle speed.
b. Often restricted in residential areas.
c. Sufficiently powerful to replace regular brakes altogether.
d. a. and b. are correct.


28. When driving through large amounts of water on the roadway you should:

a. Apply a slight constant pressure on the brakes.
b. Speed up to get through it as fast as possible. Avoid brake use altogether.
c. Avoid brake use altogether.
d. Pump the brakes.


29. To dry out your brakes during extremely wet conditions you should:

a. Avoid brake use altogether.
b. Apply a slight pressure to the brakes for a short distance.
c. Pump the brakes.
d. Hit the brakes hard whenever possible.


30. Runaway lanes are:

a. Lanes in which vehicles may travel faster than the posted speed limits.
b. Lanes designed for commercial vehicles only.
c. Lanes designed to help slow and stop vehicles if their brakes fail.
d. High occupancy vehicle lanes.


31. In ideal driving conditions, passenger cars and light trucks should be at least how many seconds behind the vehicle they are following?

a. Two seconds.
b. Three seconds.
c. Four seconds.
d. Five seconds.


32. In ideal conditions, a truck that is 17.6 metres long should be at least how many seconds behind the vehicle it is following?

a. Three seconds.
b. Four seconds.
c. Five seconds.
d. Six seconds.


33. If you must drive more slowly than the traffic flow you should:

a. Travel in the left lane.
b. Travel in the center lane.
c. Travel in the right lane.
d. Drive with your hazard lights on.


34. If you attempt to drive faster than the traffic flow:

a. You may not be able to maintain a safe following distance.
b. You will be required to make more lane changes, and therefore may more easily make a mistake.
c. You will tire more quickly.
d. All of the above.


35. When driving a large commercial vehicle on the highway, you must leave how much space between your vehicle and other large commercial vehicles?

a. 40 metres. 50 metres.
b. 50 metres.
c. 60 metres.
d. 70 metres.


36. A red triangle Slow Moving Vehicle sign should be placed on any vehicle that travels at less than:

a. 30 km/h
b. 40 km/h
c. 50 km/h
d. 60 km/h


37. Your danger zone is:

a. Any area around your vehicle that you cannot see from the driver's seat.
b. The section of road through which your vehicle must travel before it can stop.
c. Any area around your vehicle when you are speeding.
d. The road on which you are traveling when conditions are less than ideal.


38. Your danger zone increases when:

a. You speed increases.
b. Your vehicle is heavy.
c. It is raining.
d. All of the above.


39. When you see a potential hazard in your danger zone, you should:

a. Remove your foot from the accelerator and cover the brake pedal.
b. Hit the brakes.
c. Speed up and try to swerve around it.
d. Come to a complete stop until the hazard is gone.


40. Wheelbase is:

a. The size and weight of your tires.
b. The distance between the front wheels and the rear wheels of a vehicle.
c. The amount of room needed for a vehicle to make a sharp turn.
d. All of the above.


41. The turning radius for a vehicle is:

a. The amount of room needed for a vehicle to make a turn.
b. Different for the front and rear tires.
c. Dependant on the size of the vehicle.
d. All of the above.


42. The way in which a vehicle can be maneuvered is dependant on:

a. The size and weight of the vehicle.
b. The position of the driver's seat in relation to the front axle.
c. The length of the vehicle.
d. All of the above.


43. Off track is:

a. The difference between the path of the front wheels and the path of the rear wheels when a vehicle goes around a curve.
b. Something that increases as the wheelbase increases.
c. Greater in combination vehicles than in cars.
d. All of the above.


44. Which forces are at work as you drive around a curve:

a. Inertia and centrifugal force.
b. Inertia and traction.
c. Centrifugal force and traction.
d. Inertia, centrifugal force and traction.


45. When negotiating a curve, you should:

a. Enter at a speed that does not require you to brake while in the curve.
b. Enter at a speed that allows you to apply gradual power while in the curve.
c. Take the road conditions into account.
d. All of the above.


46. The position of your front wheels while negotiating a curve should be:

a. In the center of the lane.
b. Close to the center line while curving to the right.
c. Close to the right edge of the lane while curving to the left.
d. b. and c. are correct.


47. When turning right in a vehicle with a lot of off track, you may have to:

a. Cross the center line of the street you are entering.
b. Drive over the sidewalk.
c. Move partially into the left lane of the street you are turning from.
d. a. and c. are correct.


48. When turning right in a tractor/trailer, the most dangerous point in the turn is:

a. When your vehicle crosses the center line of the street you are entering.
b. When the tractor has made the turn but the trailer has not.
c. When you partially enter the left lane of the street you are turning from.
d. When you have completed the turn.


49. Why is turning right in a tractor/trailer dangerous?

a. Once the tractor has made the turn but the trailer has not, the right rear-view mirror is almost useless.
b. You cannot see cyclists or smaller vehicles that may be in the tractor's way.
c. You may have to cross the center line of the street you are entering.
d. All of the above.


50. When turning right in a bus, at what point should you start to turn the wheel?

a. When the front fender is parallel with the curb of the street you are entering.
b. When you can see the curb line of the street you are entering through the front entrance door.
c. When you have passed the curb line of the street you are entering and can no longer see it through the front entrance door.
d. It depends on the width of the street you are entering.


51. When backing up in a large vehicle, you should:

a. Use a person to guide your vehicle if possible.
b. Sound your horn at least once every vehicle length.
c. Back your vehicle out of traffic rather than into traffic.
d. All of the above.


52. If a crash occurs while you are backing up in a large vehicle:

a. It will not be considered your fault if you made an effort to warn others and look where you were going.
b. It will almost always be considered your fault.
c. It will not be considered your fault if someone else was guiding your vehicle.
d. Both you and the person attempting to guide your vehicle will be considered at fault.


53. When backing up using a guide you should:

a. Be able to see the guide throughout the maneuver.
b. Back into your blind side.
c. Position your guide where there is a clear, continuous view of your backing path.
d. a. and c. are correct.


54. A large tractor/trailer has blind spots:

a. On either side of the vehicle.
b. Directly in front of the vehicle.
c. On the passenger side of the vehicle only.
d. Directly in front, behind and on either side of the vehicle.


55. In order to drive defensively, you should:

a. Use your mirrors and scan the traffic all around you regularly.
b. Watch the traffic well ahead of your vehicle.
c. Prepare to stop when you notice a stale green light, and look ahead for lane use changes.
d. All of the above.


56. Double-clutching is:

a. Similar to changing gears in a small vehicle.
b. Similar to operating an automatic transmission.
c. A process that requires first a shift into neutral, and then a shift into the desired gear.
d. All of the above.


57. Torque is:

a. The ability of the engine to move the vehicle.
b. Used to develop speed.
c. The same as r.p.m.
d. The same as horsepower.


58. Horsepower is:

a. The ability of the engine to move the vehicle.
b. Used to develop speed.
c. The same as r.p.m.
d. The same as torque.


59. Peak torque is:

a. Found at a higher engine speed than peak horsepower.
b. Found at a lower engine speed than peak horsepower.
c. Used to develop speed.
d. The level of torque at which you should be operating your vehicle.


60. Your vehicle should be operated at:

a. Peak torque.
b. Peak horsepower.
c. Between peak torque and peak horsepower.
d. Above peak torque and peak horsepower.


61. Which dashboard gauge should be used to help you decide when to change gears?

a. The speedometer.
b. The tachometer.
c. The clock.
d. The mileage indicator.


62. Lugging occurs when:

a. The engine is operated below peak torque for any length of time.
b. The engine is operated above peak torque for any length of time.
c. The engine is operated below peak horsepower for any length of time.
d. The engine is operated above peak horsepower for any length of time.


63. Which method should you use to shift gears in a large vehicle?

a. Progressive shifting.
b. Standard r.p.m. split.
c. It depends on the vehicle.
d. It doesn't matter.


64. When shifting the transmission progressively, you should:

a. Only use enough torque to get the vehicle moving and then shift into the next higher gear.
b. Shift at a higher r.p.m. while using the higher gears.
c. Shift when you reach peak horsepower.
d. a. and b. are correct.


65. You are operating a vehicle whose peak engine torque is at 1,500 r.p.m. and whose peak horsepower is at 2,000 r.p.m. When employing the standard r.p.m. split to shift gears, you should:

a. Accelerate to 1,500 r.p.m., double-clutch, and upshift.
b. Accelerate to 2,000 r.p.m., double-clutch, and upshift.
c. Accelerate to 2,000 r.p.m., double-clutch, allow the engine speed to decrease to 1,500 r.p.m., and upshift.
d. Accelerate to 1,500 r.p.m. and upshift.


66. A governor is:

a. A speed controller.
b. A mechanism that allows you to start a vehicle without using a throttle.
c. A mechanism which regulates the amount of fuel going to the engine.
d. All of the above.


67. In gasoline-powered vehicles not equipped with a governor, you should:

a. Use only enough throttle to start the vehicle moving.
b. Shift to higher gears as soon as you have the power to do so.
c. Engage the clutch smoothly to avoid shock to the drive train, load or passengers.
d. All of the above.


68. An appropriate gear for entering a curve is:

a. One that allows you to complete your progression around the curve while also using the brakes.
b. One that allows you to complete your progression around the curve while using engine power throughout.
c. One that allows you to complete your progression around the curve while using neither the gas pedal nor the brake.
d. Second gear.


69. Large vehicles, such as tractor/trailers, traveling at high speeds create air turbulence in which of the following areas:

a. Directly in front of the truck.
b. Alongside the cab.
c. By the back area of the trailer and at the immediate rear of the trailer.
d. All of the above.


70. If you are unable to keep up with traffic on a steep grade, you should:

a. Take another route.
b. Keep right.
c. Use your four-way flashers.
d. b. and c. are correct.


71. When parking on a downgrade, you should:

a. Turn your wheels towards the edge of the roadway.
b. Turn your wheels towards the center of the roadway.
c. Keep your wheels facing straight ahead.
d. It doesn't matter.


72. When parking a trailer that is not equipped with spring brakes, you should:

a. Never park on a hill.
b. Leave your four-way flashers on.
c. Apply the trailer brakes and block the wheels.
d. Never park this kind of vehicle.


73. When parking a tractor/trailer, you should:

a. Place the transmission in the lowest forward or reverse gear or park.
b. Apply the parking brakes on both the power unit and the trailer.
c. Turn your wheels towards the center of the road if you are on an upgrade.
d. All of the above.


74. When parking a single unit vehicle on an upgrade and there is no curb, you should:

a. Turn the wheels towards the edge of the roadway.
b. Turn the wheels towards the center of the roadway.
c. Keep your wheels facing straight ahead.
d. Find another parking spot.


75. A trailer hand valve should not be used to hold a unit that will be left unattended because:

a. It is not strong enough to hold the trailer.
b. Air brakes are more effective.
c. Over time, the air may drain away and the brakes may then release.
d. A trailer should never be left unattended.


76. When parking a vehicle with a two-speed axle, you should:

a. Leave the axle in low range.
b. Leave the axle in high range.
c. Leave the axle in mid range.
d. It doesn't matter.


77. When approaching an intersection, you should:

a. Position your vehicle in the necessary lane well before the intersection.
b. Signal well in advance if you plan to turn.
c. Avoid changing lanes or passing other vehicles.
d. All of the above.


78. The maximum speed in an alley, unless otherwise posted, is:

a. 15 km/h
b. 20 km/h
c. 25 km/h
d. 30 km/h


79. When pulling out from an alley, you must:

a. Stop before you drive across the sidewalk area.
b. Yield to pedestrians.
c. Yield to traffic on the road you are entering.
d. All of the above.


80. A controlled railway crossing may have:

a. A stop sign.
b. A flagperson.
c. An electrical or mechanical signaling device.
d. Any of the above.


81. Which vehicles are required to stop at uncontrolled main railway crossings?

a. School buses carrying children and all other buses carrying passengers.
b. Tractor/trailers.
c. Vehicles carrying explosive substances.
d. a. and c. are correct.


82. When crossing railroad tracks, you should:

a. Change gears at least once to increase speed.
b. Avoid changing gears.
c. Proceed slowly to avoid damage to a low-clearance vehicle.
d. Proceed slowly to avoid displacing tracks.


83. A humpback railway crossing is:

a. A crossing where a hump has formed.
b. A danger to low-clearance vehicles.
c. A crossing close to a waterway where whales have been sighted.
d. a. and b. are correct.


84. When crossing railroad tracks, the danger is increased if:

a. The crossing surface is rough.
b. There is more than one track to cross.
c. Your vehicle is extremely heavy or long.
d. All of the above.


85. Railway crossings can be dangerous in rural areas because:

a. There tend to be fewer automated warning systems.
b. Brush is more prevalent.
c. Your vehicle is more likely to be fully loaded in a rural area.
d. a. and b. are correct.


86. When driving in snowy or icy conditions, you should:

a. Test the steering and brakes for control when you start out.
b. Avoid quick movements with the steering wheel.
c. Maintain adequate ventilation in your cab, and make sure your exhaust system has no leaks.
d. All of the above.


87. You should switch your high beams to low beams at what distance from another vehicle?

a. 50 metres.
b. 100 metres.
c. 150 metres.
d. 200 metres.


88. When driving at night you should:

a. Always obey the posted speed limit.
b. Travel at a speed that allows you to stop within the distance you can see.
c. Always travel at a speed below that of the posted speed limit.
d. Occasionally use your parking lights instead of your headlights to save energy.


89. Tires which are overinflated or underinflated can cause:

a. Your tires to overheat.
b. Your tires to burst.
c. Your tires to flex more than they should.
d. All of the above.


90. When should tire pressure be checked and adjusted?

a. When tires are warm.
b. At the end of a long trip.
c. When tires are cool.
d. Once a month.


91. If you reduce a tire's air pressure when it is warm, you:

a. Will reduce the possibility of having that tire burst.
b. May upset the cooling balance and cause the tire to generate more heat.
c. Reduce the amount of contact between that tire and the road surface
d. a. and c. are correct.


92. Steering control may be reduced when:

a. Tires are overinflated.
b. The amount of contact between the tire and the road surface is reduced.
c. Tires are underinflated.
d. All of the above.


93. When a tire is underinflated it:

a. Can become excessively worn on the outer edges of its tread.
b. Can become excessively worn in the center part of its tread.
c. Has a greater chance of hydroplaning.
d. a. and c. are correct.


94. Tread damage longer than 2.5 centimetres may mean:

a. Your tire is defective.
b. Your tire is still in proper working order.
c. You will need to get new tires in about six months.
d. Your wheel nuts should be checked.


95. A mixture of different-sized tires can:

a. Be dangerous if used on the same axle.
b. Be dangerous if used on different axles.
c. Never be used on the same vehicle.
d. Always be used on the same vehicle.


96. Every motor vehicle must be equipped with how many braking systems?

a. One.
b. Two.
c. Three.
d. None.


97. Amber flashing lights can be mounted on a vehicle if:

a. It is a disabled vehicle.
b. It is a commercial vehicle.
c. It is a police car.
d. You have a Commercial Vehicle Safety & Enforcement permit from ICBC.


98. Flares, fuses, and reflectors are:

a. Devices for heating the cab of a large vehicle in an emergency.
b. Warning devices, to be used on a disabled vehicle during the day.
c. Warning devices, to be used on a disabled vehicle at night.
d. b. and c. are correct.


99. Which vehicles are required to carry warning devices for use in the event that the vehicle becomes disabled?

a. All vehicles which seat more than 10 passengers.
b. All commercial vehicles with an overall width of more than 2.3 metres.
c. All commercial vehicles with a load width of more than 2.3 metres.
d. All of the above.


100. If your vehicle becomes disabled, you should:

a. Move it as far off the traveled portion of the highway as possible.
b. Place warning devices approximately 30 metres ahead and 30 metres behind the vehicle.
c. Place warning devices further than 30 metres from your vehicle.
d. All of the above.


101. You should never run your engine in a closed garage because:

a. Your vehicle may leap forward and break through the garage door.
b. It wastes fuel.
c. You can get carbon monoxide poisoning.
d. All of the above.


102. Drivers who are exempt from wearing seatbelts are:

a. Those who are employed doing inner-city delivery.
b. Bus and emergency vehicle drivers.
c. Non-existent.
d. a. and b. are correct.


103. Air bags are:

a. A good alternative to seat belts.
b. Part of all commercial vehicles.
c. Dangerous if you are seated less than 25 centimetres away from the air bag unit in the steering wheel.
d. Unnecessary.


104. Adjusting your head restraint so that it is at least level with the top of your ears is:

a. A great way to make driving more relaxing.
b. Important in reducing the risk of soft tissue neck and back injuries during a rear-end crash.
c. Illegal.
d. More comfortable.


105. Impaired driving can be caused by:

a. Drinking alcohol.
b. Taking illegal drugs.
c. Taking prescribed drugs.
d. All of the above.


106. You can be charged under the Criminal Code of Canada if:

a. You are driving with a Blood Alcohol Content of over .08 per cent.
b. You are driving while impaired.
c. You refuse a test for alcohol.
d. All of the above.


107. If you are convicted of impaired driving and you caused a crash, you:

a. Will face an increased cost of vehicle insurance.
b. Will have to pay for your own repairs.
c. May have to pay for any costs associated with the crash, including any victim’s claim.
d. All of the above.


108. To avoid fires, you should:

a. Never start a vehicle with a fuel leak.
b. Maintain proper tire pressure.
c. Make sure your vehicle's brakes are fully released while the vehicle is moving.
d. All of the above.


109. When attempting to fight a fire in your vehicle, you should:

a. Avoid opening the hood if the fire is under it.
b. Avoid using water on gasoline or oil fires.
c. Use as much extinguishing fuel as you can.
d. a. and b. are correct.


110. Which types of commercial vehicles are required to carry fire extinguishers?

a. School buses.
b. Public passenger vehicles.
c. Vehicles transporting explosives.
d. All of the above.


111. To help other drivers pass your vehicle, you should:

a. Reduce your speed and give them room.
b. Direct them to pass when you are moving slowly.
c. Pull over.
d. Do not allow them to pass.


112. When entering a narrow bridge from a curve, you should:

a. Be familiar with the amount of off track your vehicle displays.
b. Adjust your speed appropriately.
c. Put your flashers on so that other drivers get out of your way.
d. a. and b. are correct.


113. When turning a corner in a large vehicle, you should:

a. Check your blind spots thoroughly.
b. Honk your horn throughout.
c. Check and re-check to make sure no smaller vehicles will be crushed by your vehicle.
d. a. and c. are correct.


114. The Motor Vehicle Act Regulations specify that all commercial vehicles that fall under the National Safety Code must:

a. Be inspected before they are used each day (pre-trip inspections).
b. Be inspected at the end of the final trip of each day (post-trip inspections.)
c. Be inspected both before and after they are used each day.
d. Be inspected once a week.


115. Daily written inspection reports must be made by the drivers of which vehicles?

a. Buses and school buses.
b. Two-axle trucks or truck-tractors with a licensed GVW greater than 14,600 kilograms.
c. Trucks or truck-tractors towing a trailer that has a licensed GVW greater than 8,200 kilograms.
d. All of the above.


116. Written trip inspection reports must include:

a. All defects that may affect the safe operation of the vehicle.
b. The licence plate or unit numbers for the vehicle and/or trailers.
c. The signature of the person making the report.
d. All of the above.


117. If, part way through your trip, you couple to another trailer, you should:

a. Always inspect the trailer yourself.
b. Obtain the trip inspection report already completed for that trailer.
c. Inspect the trailer yourself if no report has been completed that day.
d. b. and c. are correct.


118. If, during your pre-trip inspection, you discover a defect that does not effect the safe operation of the vehicle, you should:

a. Repair the defect anyway.
b. Ignore the defect.
c. Make a note of the defect but wait to do repairs.
d. Call your boss for further instructions.


119. If you are sharing a vehicle with another driver during a trip, and you disagree about which defects are to be reported, you should:

a. Defer to the driver with the most seniority.
b. Make a note of the disagreement, and provide the signature of both drivers.
c. Repair the defect in question, regardless of its impact on safety.
d. All of the above.


120. When must you complete a pre-hill inspection?

a. Whenever you are approaching a hill.
b. Whenever you are approaching a hill with a steep grade.
c. Whenever you are approaching a hill and you see a sign indicating that vehicles of a certain weight must check their brakes.
d. During the pre-trip inspection.


121. During a pre-hill inspection on a vehicle equipped with air brakes, you should:

a. Make sure there are no hydraulic fluid leaks.
b. Make sure there are no audible air leaks.
c. Make sure glad hands and air lines are secure.
d. b. and c. are correct.


122. During a pre-hill inspection on a vehicle equipped with hydraulic brakes, you should:

a. Make sure that the brake drums are not overloaded.
b. Make sure that there is adequate pedal reserve.
c. Make sure there are no hydraulic fluid leaks.
d. All of the above.


123. How often should you make en route inspections of your vehicle?

a. Approximately every 500 kilometres.
b. Approximately every 300 kilometres.
c. Approximately every 240 kilometres.
d. Approximately every 100 kilometres.


124. What items related to the vehicle should a driver check periodically during a trip?

a. Wheels, tires, and lights.
b. Brakes and hubs.
c. Trailer coupling and cargo.
d. All of the above.


125. What is the articulation point on a semi-trailer?

a. The blind spot on either side of the truck.
b. The point at which the vehicle pivots.
c. The truck's weight limit.
d. The point at which the brakes stop functioning.


126. When backing up in a semi-trailer, you should:

a. First turn your steering wheel in the direction that is opposite to where you want your trailer to go, then turn it the other way as soon as your trailer begins to turn.
b. First turn your steering wheel in the direction you want your trailer to go and then turn it the other way as soon as your trailer begins to turn.
c. Turn your steering wheel in the direction you want your trailer to go.
d. Honk your horn.


127. When driving a tractor/trailer, sudden steering movements can:

a. Cause your trailer doors to open and your cargo to fall out.
b. Cause problems when double-clutching.
c. Cause a rollover.
d. Cause your brakes to stop functioning.


128. When loading your trailer, cargo should be:

a. Piled as high as possible.
b. Spread out and kept as close to the trailer deck as possible.
c. Kept as close to the tractor as possible.
d. Kept as close to the back of the trailer as possible.


129. A vehicle with a higher center of gravity is:

a. More prone to rolling over.
b. Less prone to rolling over.
c. More prone to gathering speed slowly.
d. More prone to gathering speed quickly.


130. If your trailer begins to swerve and whip while you are driving, you should:

a. Speed up to correct the problem.
b. Slow down to correct the problem.
c. Call your supervisor.
d. Slow down and stop to determine the cause of the problem.


131. A swerving and whipping trailer can be caused by:

a. Shifting loads.
b. Driving too fast for the conditions.
c. Improper trailer connections.
d. All of the above.


132. If your trailer begins swerving and whipping, and you are certain the cause is speeding, you should:

a. Slow down.
b. Stop and check your vehicle thoroughly.
c. Stop and release the trailer portion of the vehicle; you cannot continue driving with it.
d. Speed up.


133. If a trailer is not equipped with spring brakes and the trailer air tank drains, the trailer would likely:

a. Release as the air pressure drops.
b. Become dependent on the tractor brakes.
c. Be fine.
d. b. and c. are correct.


134. When you use any coupling device other than a fifth wheel, you should:

a. Trust that the device will work as it is supposed to work, and that the towed and towing vehicles are secure.
b. Also use chains or metal cables to connect the towed and towing vehicles.
c. Use chains or metal cables and another additional device to connect the towed and towing vehicles.
d. Only use it for a limited amount of time.


135. Unless you are towing a pole trailer, the draw bar or other connection between the motor vehicle and the trailer should not be more than:

a. Two metres long.
b. Three metres long.
c. Four metres long.
d. Five metres long.


136. When backing up your tractor towards your trailer in preparation for coupling, you should:

a. Approach from the left.
b. Approach from the right.
c. Approach in a straight line.
d. It doesn't matter.


137. What should be checked to make sure it is in proper condition or properly secured before you couple your tractor and trailer?

a. The kingpin and the kingpin plate
b. The fifth wheel.
c. Your cargo.
d. All of the above.


138. When coupling a tractor and trailer, you must back the tractor up to the trailer, then exit the cab and:

a. Check that the fifth wheel is securely attached to the tractor.
b. Check that the trailer apron is slightly higher than the middle of the fifth wheel.
c. Connect the air lines and electrical cable to the trailer
d. All of the above.


139. When charging the trailer braking system, if the trailer brakes do not release, this may indicate that:

a. The air lines may be crossed.
b. The fifth wheel is not properly attached to the tractor.
c. The landing gear may be damaged.
d. All of the above.


140. When you inspect the coupling of a tractor and trailer, you should:

a. Go under the trailer
b. Check to see if the fifth wheel jaws have engaged the kingpin, and that they are closed and locked.
c. Check to see if the fifth wheel apron is in contact with the trailer plate.
d. All of the above.


141. When coupling a tractor and trailer, before you raise the landing gear completely, you should:

a. Remove all wheel blocks from the trailer.
b. Raise them slightly.
c. In low gear apply a gentle tug against the trailer brakes to test the connection.
d. b. and c. are correct.


142. How do you check that the fifth wheel jaws have locked to the trailer pin?

a. Fifth wheel release handle is in the locked position.
b. The safety latch is under the locking lever.
c. The fifth wheel apron is in contact with the trailer plate.
d. The fifth wheel apron is not in contact with the trailer plate.


143. When parking a trailer, placing blocks or pads under the landing gear will:

a. Prevent the trailer from rolling.
b. Distribute the trailer’s weight and prevent the landing gear from sinking into the ground.
c. Let other drivers know that you will be parked there for awhile.
d. Prevent you from having to check your brakes as often as you normally would.


144. When uncoupling a tractor from a semi-trailer, before separating the fifth wheel from the trailer pin you should:

a. Ensure you are stopped on a level surface.
b. Block the trailer wheels.
c. Disconnect the air lines and electrical cable.
d. All of the above.


145. An overload caused by poor distribution can:

a. Put unnecessary stress on your vehicle's frame.
b. Overload the tires.
c. Cause steering misalignment.
d. All of the above.


146. A long, heavy load on a single unit truck should be placed:

a. Standing on end near the front of the trailer.
b. Standing on end near the rear of the trailer.
c. Lying lengthwise just ahead of the rear axle.
d. Lying lengthwise just behind the rear axle.


147. A heavy load should not be placed on one side of the trailer because:

a. It may cause the brakes to lock the wheels of the under-loaded side.
b. It may cause the tires to skid on wet surfaces.
c. It may cause flat spots on tires.
d. All of the above.


148. A converter dolly is

a. A unit with an axle, a fifth wheel and a hitch.
b. Sometimes used when you want to tow more than one trailer.
c. Sometimes used instead of a trailer.
d. a. and b. are correct.


149. What is the location of a single unit truck's central weight distribution point?

a. Over the front axle.
b. Over the rear axle.
c. Approximately the middle of the trailer.
d. Midway between the front of the vehicle and the rear of the vehicle.


150. When loading a trailer, the majority of the cargo should be placed:

a. Over the rear axle unit.
b. Over the drive axle unit.
c. Midway between the rear axle unit and drive axle unit.
d. Over the steering axle.


151. Vehicles carrying cargo must meet the requirements of the:

a. Motor Vehicle Act and Regulations.
b. North American Standard on Cargo Securement.
c. BC Trucking Act and Regulations.
d. a. and b. are correct.


152. Tie-down secured loads are:

a. Those secured by bulkheads, sideboards or endgates.
b. Those secured by straps, chains or webbing.
c. Those secured in any manner to the vehicle.
d. a. and b. are correct.


153. The chosen cargo securement system must be able to withstand:

a. 0.5 g deceleration in a forward direction.
b. 0.8g deceleration in a rearward direction.
c. 0.5g acceleration in a rearward direction and either sideways direction.
d. A downward force equal to at least 15% of the weight of the cargo.


154. Dunnage is:

a. Spacing blocks, boards or mats.
b. Used to separate cargo from itself and its restraints to prevent potential damage to the load or vehicle.
c. Used to distribute the pressure a tie-down may put on a section of load.
d. All of the above.


155. What is the rough guide for spacing tie-downs to secure your load?

a. Use one tie-down for every 2.5 metres of a load.
b. Use two tie-downs for every 3.04 metres of a load.
c. Use two tie-downs for the first 3.04 metres of a load and one tie-down for every 3.04 metres thereafter.
d. Use two tie-downs for the first 2.5 metres of a load and one tie-downs for every 2.5 metres thereafter.


156. The total safe working load of all the tie-downs you use must:

a. Be close to the weight of your load.
b. Meet or exceed the weight of your load.
c. Be at least 50% of the weight of your load.
d. Must greatly exceed the weight of your load.


157. An aggregate load is:

a. A load that is too large for your vehicle to safely carry.
b. A load that does not fill your vehicle completely.
c. A load made up of a collection of small articles.
d. A load carried by dump trucks.


158. An aggregate load must be covered with a tarp if:

a. It is being carried by a dump truck.
b. It is likely to bounce, blow or drop from the vehicle as it is moving.
c. It is in a vehicle which will be parked for several hours.
d. It is in a vehicle which will be traveling on a freeway.


159. If a load is supported on rollers:

a. At least one roller must be locked to prevent the load from shifting.
b. At least two rollers must be locked to prevent the load from shifting.
c. At least three rollers must be locked to prevent the load from shifting.
d. All rollers must be locked to prevent the load from shifting.


160. If you are carrying a six metre load weighing 8,000 kilograms, and your tie-downs have a safe working load of 3,000 kilograms, how many tie-downs should you use?

a. Two.
b. Three.
c. Four.
d. Five.


161. A tiedown should not be used for cargo securement if:

a. There are knots in the chain.
b. The grab hooks are spread or disturbed.
c. There are large gouges in the chain links.
d. All of the above.


162. A tie-down assembly is made of:

a. Chain.
b. Wire rope.
c. Nylon webbing.
d. All of the above.


163. Load binders are:

a. Used to tighten the chain, webbing or other strapping used to secure the load so it will not shift
b. Used to bind bundles of cargo such as logs or poles.
c. Used as containers for aggregate loads.
d. Used to hold down a load that is too large for the vehicle.


164. Whenever you use load binders, you must:

a. Make sure your tiedown assemblies are strong enough for the load you are carrying.
b. Protect all tiedown assemblies from abrasion.
c. Lock every load binder handle in place.
d. All of the above.


165. Loads that project beyond the front of a trailer must not extend more than a _________________ from the articulation point for a TAC(BC) vehicle.

a. 1 metre radius.
b. 2 metre radius.
c. 3 metre radius.
d. 4 metre radius.


166. If your cable tie-downs are not labeled with their safe working load, you should:

a. Not use those tie-downs.
b. Consult Standard 10 for the default working load limits.
c. Assume they have a strength lower than the lowest grade or classification of their type and size.
d. Assume they have a strength equal to the highest grade or classification of their type and size.


167. Why must you protect tie-downs from rubbing against your load?

a. To make sure the load is not damaged.
b. To make sure the tie-downs maintain their strength.
c. To make sure they don't create a noise that will annoy you while driving.
d. To make sure the tie-downs look good for your supervisor at the end of your trip.


168. Timber used as dunnage must be:

a. Checked every 100 kilometres.
b. Protected by using extra tie-downs.
c. Strong enough that it will not be split or crushed by the cargo.
d. A. and B. are correct.


169. Loads must not extend more than _________________ beyond the front bumper of the vehicle.

a. .5 metres.
b. 1 metre.
c. 1.5 metres.
d. 2 metres.


170. The width of most loads should not exceed:

a. 1.5 metres.
b. 2 metres.
c. 2.6 metres.
d. 3.2 metres.


171. Loads on a straight truck must not extend more than ______________ beyond the turn center.

a. 2 metres.
b. 3 metres.
c. 4 metres.
d. 5 metres.


172. When transporting vehicles as cargo, the vehicles must be:

a. Secured with four tiedowns if the vehicle weight is less than 4,500 kilograms.
b. Secured with a minimum of four tiedowns if the vehicle weight is more than 4,500 kilograms.
c. Secured with synthetic webbing if the vehicles are stacked or crushed.
d. Secured with tiedowns that have a working load limit of at least 1,000 kilograms.


173. When transporting metal coils you should:

a. Prevent them from tipping.
b. Prevent them from forward and rearward movement.
c. Use blocking, bracing,friction mats or tiedowns.
d. All of the above.


174. Vehicles transporting logs must:

a. Be equipped with bunks, bolsters, stakes or other means of cradling the logs.
b. Be inspected by the driver before entering a highway from a private road.
c. Use tiedowns with a working load limit of at least 2,268 kilograms.
d. a. and b. are correct.


175. When transporting a large boulder on a flatbed vehicle you should:

a. Place the flattest or largest side on the deck.
b. Secure it to the vehicle with at least two chains.
c. Support it with two pieces of hardwood blocking and secuire it to the vehicle with one chain.
d. a. and b. are correct.


176. Intermodal cargo containers are:

a. Designed to be moved from one type of transportation to another.
b. Can be moved without unloading the contents of the container.
c. Should be securely attached to the structure of the vehicle transporting them.
d. All of the above.


177. What are the dangers in transporting livestock?

a. The animals may move around in the trailer, which can cause them to sustain injuries.
b. The animals may lean when you go around a corner, possibly shifting your vehicle’s center of gravity and causing a rollover.
c. The noise the animals may make can irritate you.
d. a. and b. are correct.


178. In order to keep livestock bunched together during transportation, you should:

a. Tie them together.
b. Place food in strategic places.
c. Use false bulkheads.
d. Crowd them in with other cargo.


179. Which two types of load have a high center of gravity?

a. Drums and barrels.
b. Wooden pallets and grinding balls.
c. Hanging meat and bulk tank loads.
d. Bagged products and hazardous materials.


180. It is important to know the height and width of your vehicle because:

a. You must be sure that your vehicle can pass safely through tunnels and under overpasses.
b. You must generally have an oversize load permit if your vehicle is more than 2.6 metres in width.
c. You must drive more cautiously if your vehicle is large.
d. All of the above.


181. Side view mirrors may extend up to ____________ centimeters beyond the side of the vehicle without being considered in the overall width of the vehicle.

a. 10.
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25


182. You must be aware of your vehicle's gross vehicle weight (GVW) because:

a. You must ensure that your vehicle does not exceed load limits on posted signs.
b. You must apply for a permit if you are carrying an overweight load.
c. You must have an extra driver with you if your vehicle is overweight.
d. a. and b. are correct.


183. The gross vehicle weight rating, or GVWR, is:

a. The combined weight of the vehicle and its load.
b. The combined weight of the vehicle and the maximum load it is licensed to carry or tow.
c. The manufacturer's rating which defines the weight of a vehicle and the maximum load it should carry.
d. The weight of the vehicle's load.


184. The Licensed GVW is:

a. The combined weight of the vehicle and its load.
b. The combined weight of the vehicle and the maximum load it is licensed to carry or tow.
c. The manufacturer's rating which defines the weight of a vehicle and the maximum load it should carry.
d. The weight of the vehicle's load.


185. Oversize load permits may also require you to:

a. Have a pilot car with you when you transport the load.
b. Travel on a specific day of the week.
c. Travel on a specific route.
d. All of the above.


186. Permits are not normally given for vehicles that are wider than:

a. 2.6 metres.
b. 3.1 metres.
c. 4.4 metres.
d. 5 metres.


187. Which commercial vehicles are required to report to weigh scales?

a. Those weighing over 5500 kg.
b. Those transporting livestock.
c. Those with a high center of gravity.
d. Oversize vehicles.


188. "Public transportation" refers to:

a. The transportation of any group of people.
b. Transportation provided by members of the public.
c. The transportation of groups of people who are not your associates or members of your family.
d. All of the above.


189. A "bus" refers to:

a. A motor vehicle with a seating capacity of no more than 10 persons, including the driver.
b. A motor vehicle which is operated for hire.
c. A motor vehicle which is operated for public transportation.
d. A motor vehicle with a seating capacity of more than 10 persons, including the driver, and which is operated for hire or for public transportation.


190. A "taxi" refers to:

a. A motor vehicle with a seating capacity of not more than 10 persons, and which is available with its driver for hire.
b. Any motor vehicle which is available with its driver for hire.
c. Any motor vehicle with a seating capacity of not more than 10 persons.
d. Any motor vehicle which is operated for public transportation.


191. When bus passengers are injured, it is usually because:

a. They have been fooling around while the bus is moving.
b. The driver stops or starts too quickly.
c. The driver opens or closes the door too quickly.
d. b. and c. are correct.


192. When pulling away from the curb in a bus, you should:

a. Check your mirrors and shoulder check.
b. Ensure your passengers are not moving about.
c. Ensure the rear of your bus does not swing over the sidewalk.
d. All of the above.


193. Bus right-of-way means:

a. That bus drivers always have the right-of-way and can pull out from a curb or change lanes anytime
b. That bus drivers are not responsible for what happens to another vehicle that fails to yield to the bus.
c. That other drivers should yield to the bus when it signals to move from the curb into traffic in areas where the speed limit is less than 60 km/h.
d. That other drivers should yield to the bus when it signals to move from the curb lane into traffic or to change lanes.


194. When passing parked cars in a bus you should:

a. Be confident that you have the right of way and that no one will attempt to pull out in front of a bus.
b. Look for clues, such as front wheels that are turned out or a driver sitting behind the steering wheel, to help you avoid a collision.
c. Honk your horn to ensure that other drivers will notice you.
d. All of the above.


195. What is your most important concern when operating a vehicle used for transporting the public?

a. Controlling your speed.
b. The safety of your passengers.
c. Meeting your schedule.
d. b. and c. are correct.


196. In order to let passengers off your vehicle on the highway, you must:

a. Leave at least five feet of road on the left side of your vehicle so traffic may pass.
b. Leave at least ten feet of road on the left side of your vehicle so traffic may pass.
c. Leave at least fifteen feet of road on the left side of your vehicle so traffic may pass.
d. Leave at least five metres of road on the left side of your vehicle so traffic may pass.


197. In order to take passengers on or let them off your vehicle on the highway, you must park in a place that allows other drivers to see your vehicle from a distance of at least ____________ in front and behind.

a. 30 metres.
b. 40 metres.
c. 50 metres.
d. 85 metres.


198. While your vehicle is in motion, you should:

a. Allow as many people to stand up as wish to do so.
b. Use the time to make change for passengers.
c. Chat with passengers to make them feel welcome.
d. Simply focus on driving.


199. In a sedan-type vehicle, how many passengers may be seated on your right side?

a. None.
b. One.
c. Two.
d. Three.


200. You may refuse to transport a passenger if:

a. He or she is acting in a disorderly manner or being offensive to other patrons.
b. He or she is dangerous to others.
c. Your vehicle is already carrying the maximum allowed number of passengers.
d. All of the above.


201. When transporting people with disabilities, you should:

a. Make room for guide dogs.
b. Secure mobility aids, such as wheelchairs and scooters.
c. Speak to the disabled person’s companion or assistant, rather than directly to the disabled person.
d. a. and b. are correct.


202. Passenger vehicles with a capacity of more than 12 persons should have:

a. Lights that illuminate the passenger aisle behind the driver.
b. Inside lights that should be left on all the time.
c. Inside lights that should be on between sunset and sunrise.
d. a. and c. are correct.


203. Passenger vehicles with a capacity of more than 12 occupants must have:

a. A first aid kit, a spare tire and at least one fire extinguisher.
b. An emergency exit door or windows.
c. Warning devices such as flags and flares.
d. All of the above.


204. If your passenger vehicle breaks down and you cannot continue the trip, you should:

a. Ask your passengers to assist you in attempting to fix the vehicle.
b. Make immediate arrangements to have your passengers transported to their destination with as little delay as possible.
c. Try to make it to the nearest gas station.
d. Tell your passengers they're out of luck.


205. When refueling, you should:

a. Keep the radio on.
b. Keep the vehicle running.
c. Keep the nozzle of the fuel hose in contact with the intake to the fuel tank.
d. Smoke a cigarette.


206. Who is responsible for making sure the emergency equipment is in working order:

a. You.
b. The carrier.
c. Your passengers
d. All of the above.


207. Passengers may store their baggage:

a. Under the seats.
b. In overhead racks.
c. On their laps.
d. All of the above.


208. Any defect or deficiency that you find on your passenger vehicle must be:

a. Fixed immediately.
b. Mentioned to the carrier you work for.
c. Reported to the carrier you work for in writing, either immediately or at the end of that day.
d. Ignored - your carrier's mechanics will deal with it.


209. You must test the brakes on a school bus:

a. Daily.
b. Weekly.
c. Monthly.
d. Yearly.


210. Any defect found on a school bus must be:

a. Fixed before the vehicle is operated as a school bus again
b. Fixed within the week.
c. Fixed within the next two weeks.
d. Fixed within the month.


211. When refueling a school bus, you must:

a. Check the oil.
b. Make sure all passengers are off the bus.
c. Make sure you use specific gas stations.
d. Make sure you are almost out of gas, and then refuel.


212. School bus signs must be:

a. Displayed prominently at the front and rear of the bus.
b. Yellow with black lettering.
c. Displayed at the rear either immediately above or below the window.
d. All of the above.


213. In addition to the regular outside rear view mirrors, what type of mirror must be installed on all new school buses?

a. One mirror on the front right side of the bus that provides you with a good view of the entrance door and along the right side of the bus.
b. One mirror on the front left side of the bus that provides you with a good view of the highway to the rear and along the left side of the bus.
c. A convex-type mirror that can give you a good view of the roadway immediately in front of the bus.
d. A convex-type mirror that can give you a good view of the roadway immediately behind the bus.


214. Passengers on a school bus are:

a. Allowed to stand if they wish.
b. Allowed to move from seat to seat.
c. Required to be seated.
d. Required to be under twelve years old.


215. The floor of your school bus must be washed with a disinfectant solution at least:

a. Once a day.
b. Once a week.
c. Once a month.
d. Once a year.


216. As the driver of a school bus, you must only let passengers off the bus when:

a. Other drivers can see your bus from at least 60 metres in either direction.
b. There are at least three metres of road available on the left side of your vehicle.
c. They are exiting on the right side.
d. All of the above.


217. When a school bus driver puts on the bus's alternating flashing red lights, other drivers must:

a. Stop if they are approaching the bus from behind.
b. Stop if they are approaching the bus from the front.
c. Slow down and pass the school bus cautiously.
d. Stop if they are approaching the bus from either direction.


218. When operating an ambulance, when are you permitted to use flashing red lights and sirens?

a. When you are responding to an emergency call or transporting a patient.
b. When you want to get to Tim Horton’s quickly for your break.
c. Whenever there is a lot of traffic.
d. All of the above.


219. Whenever you exceed the speed limit or drive through stop signals while driving an emergency vehicle, you must consider:

a. The condition and use of the roadway.
b. The amount of traffic that is on, or expected to be on the highway.
c. The seriousness of the emergency you are responding to.
d. All of the above.


220. Why are hours of service regulations in place?

a. So that carriers don't have to pay overtime wages to drivers.
b. The drivers' union requires it.
c. Because fatigued drivers are more likely to be involved in a crash.
d. So that drivers don't have to spend too much time away from their families.


221. On-duty time includes:

a. The time spent inspecting or servicing your vehicle
b. Waiting along the route because of an unanticipated event.
c. Traveling as one of two drivers when you are not resting in the sleeper berth.
d. All of the above


222. Traveling as a passenger to a destination where you will start working as a driver counts as on-duty time if:

a. The carrier you work for has asked you to make the trip.
b. You are on a ferry.
c. You did not have 8 consecutive hours of off-duty time immediately before you began your driving time.
d. a. and c. are correct.


223. Time spent riding on a ferry is considered off-duty time unless:

a. You must take a ferry in order to reach your destination.
b. You are a bus driver selling tickets while on the ferry.
c. The ferry ride is less than one hour.
d. All of the above.


224. You must have at least 8 consecutive hours of off-duty time before driving after you:

a. Complete 13 hours of driving time.
b. Complete 14 hours of on-duty time.
c. Complete 15 hours of driving time.
d. a. and b. are correct.


225. Drivers on a 7-day cycle must not drive after ____________ hours of on-duty time in 7 consecutive days.

a. 40
b. 50
c. 60
d. 70


226. Drivers on an 14-day cycle must not drive after ____________ hours of on-duty time in 14 consecutive days.

a. 40
b. 50
c. 60
d. 120


227. After working 120 hours in a 14-day cycle, drivers must take ____________ hours of off-duty time before working 70 hours of on-duty time.

a. 8
b. 16
c. 24
d. 36


228. A sleeper berth does not include:

a. The back seat of a bus.
b. A reclining seat.
c. A designated area of your truck designed for sleeping.
d. A. and B are correct.


229. If you are required to keep a daily log, what must you have in your possession?

a. A log that is updated to your last change in duty status.
b. Copies of your daily log for your work cycle.
c. Any supporting documents you have been issued during your trip.
d. All of the above.


230. What kinds of documents might you have to present to verify logbook entries?

a. Bills of lading.
b. Shipping documents.
c. Fuel and accommodation receipts
d. All of the above.


231. What are the consequences if you exceed your maximum on-duty hours and an enforcement officer stops you?

a. You will be arrested.
b. You will lose your job.
c. You can be ordered out of service.
d. All of the above.


232. When driving in the Yukon or Northwest Territories, you can be on duty for no more than ____________ consecutive hours.

a. 15
b. 18
c. 25
d. 30


233. When driving in the Yukon or Northwest Territories, you may drive no more than ___________ hours during your on-duty time.

a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25


234. When driving in the United States, you may drive no more than ____________ hours during your on-duty time.

a. 11
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25


235. What type of air brake endorsement must you have to drive on industrial roads?

a. Off-highway.
b. On-highway.
c. Industrial.
d. a. and c. are correct.


236. To receive an ICBC approved air brake endorsement you must:

a. Complete an ICBC approved air brake course.
b. Pass the air brake knowledge test.
c. Pass an air brake pre-trip inspection test.
d. All of the above.


237. When building air pressure during an air brake pre-trip inspection, at what p.s.i. should the low air warning device de-activate?

a. 80 p.s.i. or higher
b. 50 p.s.i. or higher.
c. 60 to 65 p.s.i.
d. 70 p.s.i. or higher.


238. During an air brake pre-trip inspection on a vehicle with one trailer, you should make sure that air loss is not more than:

a. 1 p.s.i. within one minute.
b. 2 p.s.i. within one minute.
c. 3 p.s.i. within one minute.
d. 4 p.s.i. within one minute.


239. Industrial roads do not include:

a. Privately owned roads.
b. Roads used exclusively for the construction and maintenance of electrical power lines, telephone lines or pipe lines.
c. Roads within manufacturing plants or industrial sites.
d. All of the above.


240. Drivers are required to have an industrial air brake endorsement if:

a. They will be transporting natural resources on industrial roads.
b. They will be driving loaders or graders on industrial roads.
c. They are operating unlicensed, air brake equiped vehicles that are loaded with natural resources on industrial roads.
d. All of the above.


241. If you perform a brake test and find that the brakes are not operating safely, what should you do?

a. Drive your vehicle back to your carrier for repair.
b. Finish your trip, and then have the vehicle repaired.
c. Stop the vehicle in a safe place and secure it; do not drive it until the brakes are repaired.
d. Call for 24 hour roadside assistance.


242. Water cooled brakes are used:

a. To control brake drum overheating.
b. To help extremely large vehicles stop safely.
c. To avoid any cracks in the brake drum.
d. All of the above.


243. Who has the right-of-way on a steep hill on an industrial road?

a. Whoever was there first.
b. Whoever is proceeding down the hill.
c. Whoever is proceeding up the hill.
d. A loaded truck that is proceeding down the hill.


244. A "turn out" is:

a. A place where the road widens.
b. A place to pull off the road so that other vehicles may pass.
c. Another name for a runaway lane.
d. A wide seventies-style collar.


245. What determines which truck should turn out on a narrow industrial road?

a. Load of the truck.
b. The size of the truck.
c. The seniority of the truck's driver.
d. Speed of the truck.


246. What two factors determine the sharpness of your large vehicle's turn?

a. Turning radius of the front wheels.
b. The amount of off track of the rear wheels.
c. The size of the load you are carrying.
d. a and b


247. Idling for longer than five minutes can:

a. Waste fuel.
b. Increase Emissions.
c. Clog the fuel injector.
d. All of the above.


248. To operate a vehicle equipped with air brakes on a highway, you must have:

a. Completed an air brake course and an air brake pre-trip inspection test.
b. An industrial air brake endorsement.
c. An air brake endorsement from ICBC.
d. A and C are correct


249. What are the main components of a simple air brake system?

a. Air lines, reservoir, brakepedal, foundation brakes, spring-line.
b. Compressor, air lines, brake pedal.
c. Compressor, air lines, reservoir, brake pedal, foundation brakes.
d. Air lines, reservoir, foundation brakes, spring-line.


250. How can you tell how much air pressure is in the main reservoir?

a. By consulting the one-way check valve.
b. By consulting the reservoir pressure gauges mounted in the dashboard.
c. Manually checkin the reservoir using a pressure gauge.
d. a and c


251. Why should you avoid compounding the air brakes?

a. You can cause damage to the slack adjusters and s-cams.
b. You can cause damage to the brake chamber mounting bolts, brake shoe rollers, shoes and brake drums.
c. You will risk damage by putting too much force on the brake components.
d. All of the above


252. How can you tell if you have reversed the supply line and service line connections in your spring parking brakes?

a. The spring parking brakes will not release even when you use the parking brake control on the dashboard.
b. The trailer service brakes will not function.
c. The parking brake control on the dashboard will short out.
d. a and b


253. Why are air brakes, rather than hydraulic brakes, used on heavy commercial vehicles?

a. Use greater force to apply brakes, more tolerant to small leaks and they have proven they stop heavy vehicles safely.
b. They are cheaper and more effective.
c. Use a greater force and are quieter in residential areas.
d. They have proven they are capable of stopping heavy vehicles and have a faster brake lag time.


254. What are the five components of a simple air brake system?

a. Compressor, lever, air lines, reservoir, foot valve.
b. Compressor, air lines, reservoir, safety valve, brake pedal.
c. Compressor, air lines, reservoir, brake pedal, foundation brakes.
d. Foundation brakes, reservoir, brake pedal, governor, air lines.


255. What prevents total loss of air pressure in the service brake system in the event of an air line rupture between the compressor and the supply reservoir?

a. Reservoir pressure gauge
b. One-way check valve
c. Secondary reservoir.
d. Foot valve


256. What must you do if the low pressure warning indicator activates?

a. Stop immediately and call your supervisor for assistance.
b. Continue on to the next stop and then investigate.
c. Wait until the wig-wag retracts then stop.
d. Stop and find the cause of the air loss.


257. What is one advantage of a dual air brake system?

a. In the event of a total failure of one system, the driver is still able to stop the truck.
b. Only one reservoir needs to be maintained.
c. Shorter stopping distances and brake lag time.
d. The driver does not need to stop in the event of low air warning.


258. If you are adjusting an automatic slack adjuster that has hexagonal head adjusting bolt, you must rotate the adjusting bolt in which direction?

a. Clockwise.
b. Counter-clockwise.
c. Up.
d. Down.


259. Where would an air dryer be installed in an air brake system?

a. In the compressor discharge line between the compressor and the first reservoir.
b. Between the governor and the compressor.
c. Immediately before the foot valve.
d. On the instrument panel next to the reservoir pressure gauges.


260. If you make a full brake application during an emergency stop with an automatic front wheel limiting system, how much air pressure is directed to the front brakes?

a. 60 psi
b. 70 psi
c. 40 psi
d. Equal pressure to steering axle and drive axle brakes.


261. Who is ultimately responsible for the brakes on a vehicle?

a. The maintenance crew.
b. The driver.
c. The owner.
d. The owner and mechanical team.


262. What is the fine for operating a commercial vehicle with brakes improperly adjusted?

a. $30
b. $100
c. Up to $2,000
d. $150


263. Why is it so critical to check slack adjustments?

a. To ensure the vehicle can stop safely.
b. To ensure the foot valve is in the correct position.
c. To measure the push rod travel.
d. To pass inspection.


264. How much pressure should you apply to the foot valve when measuring slack adjustment using the applied stroke method?

a. 40 psi
b. 150 psi
c. 300 psi
d. 90 to 100 psi


265. How do you know you are turning the adjusting bolt in the correct direction when adjusting the slack adjuster?

a. The slack adjuster doesn't move.
b. The slack adjuster will pull the pushrod out of the chamber.
c. The cam rotates in the same direction as if the brakes were being applied.
d. The slack adjuster pushes the pushrod into the chamber.


266. What is an advantage of automatic slack adjusters?

a. They automatically adjust themselves during full brake applications provided they are working correctly.
b. They automatically clean out the moisture and oil from the reservoir.
c. They require manual adjustment less frequently.
d. They don't need to be checked by a qualified mechanic.


267. Why are drivers required to complete a trip inspection report?

a. For the owner's records.
b. This is a requirement under the Motor Vehicle Act Regulations.
c. For the vehicle maintenance log.
d. For the driver's records.


268. Under what circumstance are both drivers of a vehicle required to sign a trip inspection report?

a. When both drivers are sharing the vehicle during a trip.
b. When the carrier agent has completed the pre-trip inspection.
c. If the trip lasts more than 1 day.
d. When there is a disagreement over defects reported.


269. When are you required to complete a pre-hill inspection?

a. Before every hill.
b. At the start of the trip if you will be driving mountainous roads.
c. When you see a posted sign instructing you to check brakes before a steep hill.
d. All of the above.


270. Regardless of maintenance policies, who is responsible for ensuring the brakes of a vehicle are in working order before the vehicle is placed into operation?

a. The driver.
b. The mechanic.
c. The owner.
d. Both the owner and mechanic.


271. How often should you inspect your vehicle?

a. Once a month.
b. Before the vehicle is used each day and at the end of the final trip each day.
c. First thing in the morning.
d. Before each trip.